Cardiac Rehabilitation Increases Plasma Klotho Levels.

Background: Mineral metabolism (MM), mainly fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23) and klotho, has been linked to cardiovascular (CV) diseases. Cardiac rehabilitation (CR) has been demonstrated to reduce CV events, although its potential relationship with changes in MM is unknown. Methods: We performed a prospective, observational, case-control study, with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) patients who underwent CR and control patients (matched by age, gender, left ventricular ejection fraction, diabetes, and coronary artery bypass grafting), who did not. The inclusion dates were from August 2013 to November 2017 in CR group and from July 2006 to June 2014 in control group. Clinical, biochemical, and MM biomarkers were collected at discharge and six months later. Our objective was to evaluate differences in the modification pattern of MM in both groups. Results: We included 58 CR patients and 116 controls. The control group showed a higher prevalence of hypertension (50.9% vs. 34.5%), ST-elevated myocardial infarction (59.5% vs. 29.3%), and treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (100% vs. 69%). P2Y12 inhibitors and beta-blockers were more frequently prescribed in the CR group (83.6% vs. 96.6% and 82.8% vs. 94.8%, respectively). After six months, klotho levels increased in CR patients whereas they were reduced in controls (+63 vs. -49 pg/mL; p < 0.001). FGF-23 was unchanged in the CR group and reduced in controls (+0.2 vs. -17.3 RU/dL; p < 0.003). After multivariate analysis, only the change in klotho levels was significantly different between groups (+124 pg/mL favoring CR group; IC 95% [+44 to +205]; p = 0.003). Conclusions: In our study, CR after ACS increases plasma klotho levels without significant changes in other components of MM. Further studies are needed to clarify whether this effect has a causal role in the clinical benefit of CR.

Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Assessment of the Effects of Parathyroidectomy Using Dual X-Ray Absorptiometry, Trabecular Bone Score, and Dual X-Ray Absorptiometry-Based Three-Dimensional Modeling.

OBJECTIVE: This study aimed to evaluate the bone microstructure to determine whether curative surgery of primary hyperparathyroidism produces changes in bone mineral density (BMD), trabecular bone score (TBS), and three-dimensional (3D) dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) parameters and whether these changes are comparable. METHODS: We retrospectively studied 85 patients (60 women and 25 men, 60.4 ± 12.5 years) diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and undergoing parathyroidectomy. Mean percent changes in BMD (lumbar spine [LS], femoral neck [FN], total hip [TH], and 1/3 radius), TBS and 3D-DXA parameters (trabecular volumetric BMD (vBMD), cortical vBMD, integral vBMD, cortical surface density (sBMD), and cortical thickness at TH) after surgery (12, 24, and/or 36 months) were calculated and compared, and we sought the determinants of these changes. RESULTS: After parathyroidectomy, BMD presented statistically significant mean increases in LS, FN, and TH during the first 3 years after surgery (P < .001), accompanied by an improvement in all 3D-DXA parameters, but there were no significant changes in 1/3 radius BMD or TBS. Cortical sBMD, trabecular vBMD, and integral vBMD reached mean increases of similar magnitude to those of FN and TH BMD. Age and preoperative serum levels of parathyroid hormone and carboxy-terminal telopeptide of type 1 collagen were significantly associated with percent changes after surgery. CONCLUSION: We found a benefit of parathyroidectomy for bone, with significant percent increases in LS, FN, and TH BMD up to the third year after surgery, and a qualitative benefit for the hip in both its trabecular and cortical compartments and bone strength.

Moderate-High Blood Eosinophilia Is Associated with Increased Hospitalization and Other Asthma Comorbidities.

(1) Background: Eosinophilia has traditionally been linked to eosinophilic asthma, for which it is the gold-standard prognostic biomarker. However, the association between eosinophilia and the presence of other diseases and comorbidities is yet unclear. (2) Methods: For this retrospective study, we reviewed the electronic medical records of 49,909 subjects with blood eosinophilia to gather data on the presence of asthma, COPD, sleep apnea, tuberculosis, dyslipidemia, hypertension, and other cardiovascular diseases and severe CRSwNP among these subjects. Demographic features including age, sex, and smoking habits were collected, as well as the number of hospitalizations and emergency department visits. T-tests, ANOVA, Fisher test, and logistic regression models were used. (3) Results: For all age groups studied, eosinophilia was significantly more prevalent among asthmatic subjects than nonasthmatics, especially in patients also presenting CRSwNP, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. The likelihood of developing asthma, COPD, and CRSwNP, and hospitalization, was increased when BEC was above 600 eosinophils/µL. The association between asthma, CRSwNP, and BEC was corroborated by multiple logistic regressions models. (4) Conclusions: We demonstrated the association of having over 600 blood eosinophils/µL with a higher number of hospitalizations and comorbidities (CRSwNP and COPD), which proves that BEC is a highly useful parameter to consider in subjects who present blood eosinophilia.

LT and SOX9 expression are associated with gene sets that distinguish Merkel cell polyomavirus-positive and -negative Merkel cell carcinoma.

BACKGROUND: Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) is an aggressive malignant neuroendocrine tumour. There are two subsets of MCC, one related to Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCPyV) and the other to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. MCPyV-positive and MCPyV-negative MCCs have been considered to be different tumours, since the former type harbours few DNA mutations and is not related to UV radiation, and the latter usually arises in sun-exposed areas and may be found in conjunction with other keratinocytic tumours, mostly squamous cell carcinomas. Two viral oncoproteins, large T antigen (LT, coded by MCPyV_gp3) and small T antigen (sT, coded by MCPyV_gp4), promote different carcinogenic pathways. OBJECTIVES: We hypothesized that the biological behaviours of MCPyV-positive and MCPyV-negative MCCs are different. We aimed to determine which genes are differentially expressed in MCPyV-positive and MCPyV-negative MCC, to describe the mutational burden and the most frequently mutated genes in the two MCC types, and to identify the clinical and molecular factors that may be related to patient survival. METHODS: Ninety-two cases with a diagnosis of MCC were identified from the medical databases of the participating centres.To study gene expression, a customized panel of 172 genes was developed. Gene expression profiling was performed with nCounter Technology (NanoString Technologies, Seattle, WA, USA).For mutational studies, a customized panel of 26 genes was designed. Somatic single nucleotide variants (SNVs) were identified following the best practices GATK workflow for somatic mutations. RESULTS: The expression of LT enabled the series to be divided into two groups, (LT-positive, n=55; LT-negative, n=37). Genes differentially expressed in LT-negative cases were related to epithelial differentiation, especially SOX9, or proliferation and cell cycle (MYC, CDK6), among others. Congruently, LT displayed lower expression in SOX9-positive cases, and differentially expressed genes in SOX9-positive cases were related to epithelial/squamous differentiation.In LT-positive cases, the mean SNV frequency was 4.3 per case, and 10 per case in LT-negative cases (p=0.03).The expression of SNAI1 (HR=1.046, 95% CI=1.007-1.086, p=0.021) and CDK6 (HR=1.049, 95% CI=1.020-1.080, p=0.001) were identified as risk factors in a multivariate survival analysis. CONCLUSIONS: Tumours with weak expression of LT tend to co-express genes related to squamous differentiation and cell cycle, and to have a higher mutational burden. These findings are congruent with those of earlier studies.

Comparison of Long-term Response and Remission to Omalizumab and Anti-IL-5/IL-5R Using Different Criteria in a Real-life Cohort of Severe Asthma Patients.

BACKGROUND: Evaluation of biologic therapy response is vital to monitor its effectiveness. Authors have proposed various response criteria including good responder, super-responder, non-responder, and clinical remission. OBJECTIVES: To ascertain the prevalence of response and clinical remission after long-term treatment (>6 months) of anti-IgE and anti-IL-5/IL-5Rα biologics, compare these results with existing criteria, and identify predictors for non-responders and clinical remission. METHODS: A multicenter, real-life study involving severe asthma patients in Spain. Various outcomes were assessed to gauge response and clinical remission against established criteria. RESULTS: The study included 429 patients, 209 (48.7%) omalizumab, 112 (26.1%) mepolizumab, 19 (4.4%) reslizumab and 89 (20.7%) benralizumab, with a mean treatment duration of 55.3±38.8 months. In the final year of treatment, 218 (50.8%) were super-responders, 173 (40.3%) responders, 38 (8.9%) non-responders, and clinical remission in 116 (27%), without differences among biologics. The short-term non-responders (<6 months) were 25/545 (4.6%). Substantial variations in response and clinical remission were observed when applying different published criteria. Predictors of non-response included higher BMI (OR:1.14; 95% CI:1.06-1.23; p<0.001), admissions at ICU (2.69; 1.30-5.56; p=0.01), high count of SAE (1.21; 1.03-1.42; p=0.02) before biologic treatment. High FEV1% (0.96; 0.95-0.98; p<0.001), a high ACT score (0.93; 0.88-0.99; p=0.01) before biologic treatment or NSAID-ERD (0.52; 0.29-0.91; p=0.02) showed strong associations with achieving clinical remission. CONCLUSION: A substantial proportion of severe asthma patients treated long-term with omalizumab or anti-IL5/IL-5Rα achieved a good response. Differences in response criteria highlight the need for harmonization in defining response and clinical remission in biologic therapy to enable meaningful cross-study comparisons.

Osteoporotic vertebral fractures localized in the lumbar area significantly impact sagittal alignment.

Lumbar fractures and/or multiple fractures at the lumbar or thoracolumbar regions are risk factors for sagittal malalignment in patients older than 70 years old. Although patients with OVF show a huge capacity to compensate after the fractures, lumbar and TL lumbar fractures require closer monitoring. PURPOSE: To assess the impact of osteoporotic vertebral fractures on the sagittal alignment of the elderly and identify risk factors for sagittal malalignment. METHODS: We performed a retrospective study on a cohort of 249 patients older than 70 years old and diagnosed with osteoporosis who suffered chronic vertebral fractures. Demographic and radiological data were collected. Full-spine lateral X-rays were obtained to analyze the sagittal plane. Patients were classified according to the number and location of the fractures. Pearson's correlation coefficient was used to assess the relationships between the type of fractures and sagittal alignment. RESULTS: A total of 673 chronic fractures were detected in 249 patients with a mean number of vertebral fractures per patient of 2.7 ± 1.9. Patients were divided into 9 subgroups according to the location and the number of fractures. Surprisingly, any of the aggregated parameters used to assess sagittal alignment exceeded the threshold defined for malalignment. In the second part of the analysis, 41 patients with sagittal malalignment were identified. In this subpopulation, an overrepresentation of patients with lumbar fractures (34% vs. 11%) and an under-representation of thoracic fractures (9% vs. 34%) were reported. We also observed that patients with 3 or more lumbar or thoracolumbar fractures had an increased risk of sagittal malalignment. CONCLUSIONS: Lumbar fractures and/or multiple fractures at the lumbar or thoracolumbar regions are risk factors for sagittal malalignment in patients older than 70 years old. Although patients show a remarkable capacity to compensate, fractures at the lumbar and thoracolumbar regions need closer monitoring.

Sex-dependent relationship of polymorphisms in CLOCK and REV-ERBα genes with body mass index and lipid levels in children.

Circadian rhythms, which are governed by a circadian clock, regulate important biological processes associated with obesity. SNPs in circadian clock genes have been linked to energy and lipid homeostasis. The aim of our study was to evaluate the associations of CLOCK and REV-ERBα SNPs with BMI and plasma lipid levels in pre-pubertal boys and girls. The study sample population comprised 1268 children aged 6-8 years. Information regarding anthropometric parameters and plasma lipid concentrations was available. Genotyping of CLOCK SNPs rs1801260, rs4580704, rs3749474, rs3736544 and rs4864548 and REV-ERBα SNPs rs2017427, rs20711570 and rs2314339 was performed by RT-PCR. The CLOCK SNPs rs3749474 and rs4864548 were significantly associated with BMI in girls but no in boys. Female carriers of the minor alleles for these SNPs presented lower BMI compared to non-carriers. A significant association of the REV-ERBα SNP rs2071570 with plasma total cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol and Apo B in males was also observed. Male AA carriers showed lower plasma levels of total cholesterol, LDL-cholesterol and Apo B levels as compared with carriers of the C allele. No significant associations between any of the studied REV-ERBα SNPs and plasma lipid levels were observed in females. In summary, CLOCK and REV-ERBα SNPs were associated with BMI and plasma lipid levels respectively in a sex-dependent manner. Our findings suggest that sex-related factors may interact with Clock genes SNPs conditioning the effects of these polymorphisms on circadian alterations.

Effects of usual yoga practice on the diaphragmatic contractility: A cross-sectional controlled study.

Objectives: The aim of this study is to observe and compare the effects of regular yoga practice on the main inspiratory muscle, the diaphragm, by analyzing its thickness, excursion, velocity and contraction time, using ultrasound. Design: A Cross-Sectional Controlled Study. Participants: 80 healthy subjects (40 habitual yoga practitioners and 40 non-practitioners), without previous respiratory pathology participated in this study. During maximum diaphragmatic breathing, the diaphragmatic thickness (at rest and after maximum inspiration), excursion, velocity and contraction time were measured by ultrasound. Results: in the experimental group, practicing yoga, statistically significant differences (p < 0.001) were observed compared to the control group, not practicing, in the thickness of the diaphragm at rest (0.26 ± 0.02 vs 0.22 ± 0.01 cm); the diaphragmatic thickness in maximum inspiration (0.34 ± 0.03 vs 0.28 ± 0.03 cm); contraction velocity (1.54 ± 0.54 vs 2.23 ± 0.86 cm/s), contraction time (3.28 ± 0.45 vs 2.58 ± 0.49 s) and Borg scale of perceived exertion (1.05 ± 1.6 vs 1.70 ± 1.34), p = 0.05. However, the diaphragmatic excursion was greater in the control group (5.45 ± 1.42 vs 4.87 ± 1.33 cm) with no statistically significant differences (p = 0.06). Conclusions: the regular practice of yoga improves the parameters of diaphragm thickness, speed and contraction time measured in ultrasound and the sensation of perceived exertion during a maximum inspiration. So it can be considered as another method for training the inspiratory muscles in clinical practice.

Patient Characteristics Associated with Growth of Patient-Derived Tumor Implants in Mice (Patient-Derived Xenografts).

Background: patient-derived xenografts (PDXs) have defined the field of translational cancer research in recent years, becoming one of the most-used tools in early drug development. The process of establishing cancer models in mice has turned out to be challenging, since little research focuses on evaluating which factors impact engraftment success. We sought to determine the clinical, pathological, or molecular factors which may predict better engraftment rates in PDXs. Methods: between March 2017 and January 2021, tumor samples obtained from patients with primary or metastatic cancer were implanted into athymic nude mice. A full comprehensive evaluation of baseline factors associated with the patients and patients' tumors was performed, with the goal of potentially identifying predictive markers of engraftment. We focused on clinical (patient factors) pathological (patients' tumor samples) and molecular (patients' tumor samples) characteristics, analyzed either by immunohistochemistry (IHC) or next-generation sequencing (NGS), which were associated with the likelihood of final engraftment, as well as with tumor growth rates in xenografts. Results: a total of 585 tumor samples were collected and implanted. Twenty-one failed to engraft, due to lack of malignant cells. Of 564 tumor-positive samples, 187 (33.2%) grew at time of analysis. The study was able to find correlation and predictive value for engraftment for the following: the use of systemic antibiotics by the patient within 2 weeks of sampling (38.1% (72/189) antibiotics- group vs. 30.7% (115/375) no-antibiotics) (p = 0.048), and the administration of systemic steroids to the patients within 2 weeks of sampling (41.5% (34/48) steroids vs. 31.7% (153/329), no-steroids) (p = 0.049). Regarding patient's baseline tests, we found certain markers could help predict final engraftment success: for lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels, 34.1% (140/411) of tumors derived from patients with baseline blood LDH levels above the upper limit of normality (ULN) achieved growth, against 30.7% (47/153) with normal LDH (p = 0.047). Histological tumor characteristics, such as grade of differentiation, were also correlated. Grade 1: 25.4% (47/187), grade 2: 34.8% (65/187) and grade 3: 40.1% (75/187) tumors achieved successful growth (p = 0.043), suggesting the higher the grade, the higher the likelihood of success. Similarly, higher ki67 levels were also correlated with better engraftment rates: low (Ki67 < 15%): 8.9% (9/45) achieved growth vs. high (Ki67 ≥ 15%): 31% (35/113) (p: 0.002). Other markers of aggressiveness such as the presence of lymphovascular invasion in tumor sample of origin was also predictive: 42.2% (97/230) with lymphovascular vs. 26.9% (90/334) of samples with no invasion (p = 0.0001). From the molecular standpoint, mismatch-repair-deficient (MMRd) tumors showed better engraftment rates: 62.1% (18/29) achieved growth vs. 40.8% (75/184) of proficient tumors (p = 0.026). A total of 84 PDX were breast models, among which 57.9% (11/19) ER-negative models grew, vs. 15.4% (10/65) of ER-positive models (p = 0.0001), also consonant with ER-negative tumors being more aggressive. BRAFmut cancers are more likely to achieve engraftment during the development of PDX models. Lastly, tumor growth rates during first passages can help establish a cutoff point for the decision-making process during PDX development, since the higher the tumor grades, the higher the likelihood of success. Conclusions: tumors with higher grade and Ki67 protein expression, lymphovascular and/or perineural invasion, with dMMR and are negative for ER expression have a higher probability of achieving growth in the process of PDX development. The use of steroids and/or antibiotics in the patient prior to sampling can also impact the likelihood of success in PDX development. Lastly, establishing a cutoff point for tumor growth rates could guide the decision-making process during PDX development.

Frailty assessment to individualize treatment in older patients with lymphoma.

PURPOSE: A study analyzing the application of a protocol of comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA) in older patients with lymphoma was carried out to allow frailty-based patient classification and individualized treatment. METHODS: Lymphoma patients older than 70 years referred to the Geriatric Clinic at a tertiary hospital between May 2016 and March 2021 were included. The assessment protocol included comorbidity, polypharmacy, nutritional, functional, and mental status, geriatric syndromes, and life expectancy. CGA enabled patient classification into four groups (Type I to Type IV) based on frailty assessment instrument scoring and clinical, functional, and mental status. Variables were compared using parametric and non-parametric statistical tests and Kaplan-Meier survival curves. RESULTS: Ninety-three patients (55.9% women) were included. Median age was 81.1 years (± 5.7). 23 patients (24.7%) were classified as robust (type I), 30 (32.3%) as pre-frail (type II) with potentially reversable deficits, 38 (40.9%) as frail (type III), and 2 (2.2%) as requiring palliative care (type IV). Patients received oncospecific treatment with modifications carried out in 64.5% of cases based on CGA results. Differences in overall survival (p = 0.002), response to treatment (p < 0.001) and likelihood of increased frailty (p = 0.024) were observed, with type III-IV patients showing significantly worse outcomes. CONCLUSION: Performance of standardized, systematic CGA by geriatricians permits older lymphoma patients to be classified according to frailty, with significant differences in terms of clinical outcomes across groups. We propose incorporating CGA performed by geriatricians as part of the multidisciplinary care team to optimize therapeutic strategy for these patients.

Posting of clinical trial results and other critical information from completed medicines trials on ClinicalTrials.gov.

PURPOSE: Clinical trials transparency requires trial registration and the posting of results on a public register. US regulations also require the posting of protocols and statistical analysis plans (SAPs). For US Federal agency funded trials to be started on or after 21 January 2019, informed consent forms (ICFs) must also be posted. Posting these documents is not mandatory in other countries. We aimed to assess compliance with US regulations of trials conducted in the US or in other countries with respect to ICFs, protocols, SAPs, and results. METHODS: This cross-sectional analysis (27 April 2023) comprised completed medicines trials to be started on or after 21 January 2019 registered on ClinicalTrials.gov. Trial data were registered by funder type (i.e., 'US federal agencies', industry, and 'all others') and development phase. RESULTS: Of 5,584 trials, 40% were conducted solely in the US. 47% and 12% of US and non-US trials had posted results. Some 40% of US trials had posted protocols and SAPs as did 9% of trials conducted in other countries. Only 10% (US) and 2% (other countries) of trials had posted ICFs. When the margin of the last 2 and 12 months after primary completion date were considered in the analysis, ICF posting rate did not change, but posting results increased to 64% for US trials. 'US Federal agencies' funded trials were significantly more likely to post ICFs than industry [OR 23.9 (12.5-45.7; <.001)] or 'all others' [OR 3.16 (1.79-5.56; <.001)]. CONCLUSION: Future interventions should be considered to encourage timely posting of trial results and information.

Postnatal catch-up growth in term newborns with altered fetal weight patterns. The GROWIN study.

BACKGROUND: Small for gestational age (SGA) perform a postnatal catch-up growth to recover their genetic trajectory. We studied the postnatal catch-up growth pattern of fetuses born with an appropriate-for-gestational-age (AGA) weight but with fetal growth deceleration (FGD) to explore whether they catch up. METHODS: Nine hundred and sixty-six newborns at Villalba University General Hospital (HUGV), were followed from 34 to 37 weeks to birth. Z-scores, adjusted for sex and age, of weight, length, and BMI at 3, 6, 9, and 12 months were calculated. We define catch-up as an increase in z-score greater than 0.67 SD in the growth curves. RESULTS: AGA FGD had lower mean weight and length than AGA non-FGD at all time points; BMI was lower until 3 months. AGA FGD had a lower weight, length, and BMI z-score (until 9, 6 months, and at birth, respectively) than AGA non-FGD. AGA FGD newborns had a significantly increased likelihood of weight catch-up at 3 months (OR 1.79; 95% CI: 1.16, 2.78; p = 0.009) and BMI in all investigated periods (OR 1.90; 95% CI 1.30, 2.78; p < 0.001 at 3 months), compared to AGA non-FGD newborns. CONCLUSIONS: AGA FGD newborns perform catch-up growth, especially in weight and BMI, in the first year of life, compared to AGA non-FGD. IMPACT: Appropriate-for-gestational-age (AGA) newborns with fetal growth deceleration (FGD), between the third trimester of pregnancy and delivery, present a lower weight and height, during the first year of life, compared to AGA non-FGD. Appropriate-for-gestational-age (AGA) newborns with fetal growth deceleration (FGD), between the third trimester of pregnancy and delivery, present a higher likelihood of weight catch-up in the first 3 months of life and of BMI in the first year compared to AGA non-FGD. AGA FGD experienced early weight and BMI catch-up, especially in the first 3 months of life, like SGA. This finding should be considered in the future follow-up.

ADAM10 Gene Variants in AD Patients and Their Relationship to CSF Protein Levels.

ADAM10 is the main α-secretase acting in the non-amyloidogenic processing of APP. We hypothesized that certain rare ADAM10 variants could increase the risk for AD by conferring the age-related downregulation of α-secretase. The ADAM10 gene was sequenced in 103 AD cases (82% familial) and 96 cognitively preserved nonagenarians. We examined rare variants (MAF < 0.01) and determined their potential association in the AD group with lower CSF protein levels, as analyzed by means of ELISA, and Western blot (species of 50 kDa, 55 kDa, and 80 kDa). Rare variants were found in 15.5% of AD cases (23% early-onset, 8% late-onset) and in 12.5% of nonagenarians, and some were group-specific. All were intronic variants except Q170H, found in three AD cases and one nonagenarian. The 3'UTR rs74016945 (MAF = 0.01) was found in 6% of the nonagenarians (OR 0.146, p = 0.057). Altogether, ADAM10 total levels or specific species were not significantly different when comparing AD with controls or carriers of rare variants versus non-carriers (except a Q170H carrier exhibiting low levels of all species), and did not differ according to the age at onset or APOE genotype. We conclude that ADAM10 exonic variants are uncommon in AD cases, and the presence of rare intronic variants (more frequent in early-onset cases) is not associated with decreased protein levels in CSF.

Validación de un cuestionario específico de calidad de vida en sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica (CSOC) / Validation of a Spanish chronic obstructive sialadenitis quality of life questionnaire (CSOC)

Antecedentes y objetivos: El interés en la sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica está aumentando con la introducción de la sialoendoscopia. Es necesario contar con un instrumento para evaluar la calidad de vida en los pacientes con sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica que permita mejorar el manejo clínico y apoyar la investigación. Los objetivos del presente trabajo son diseñar un cuestionario en español para evaluar la calidad de vida en los pacientes con sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica, denominado CSOC, y evaluar su fiabilidad, validez y viabilidad.Material y métodosEstudio prospectivo, multicéntrico, observacional, en el que se incluyeron pacientes con diagnóstico de sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica. Se realizaron una búsqueda bibliográfica y entrevistas con pacientes para la generación de las preguntas del cuestionario. A continuación, un panel de expertos evaluó la validez de contenido. La validez de constructo fue evaluada en una muestra de 120 pacientes y 100 controles. Los pacientes contestaron un CSOC, un short form-36 (SF-36) versión en español y una escala visual analógica (EVA). Se evaluó la viabilidad, la fiabilidad, la consistencia interna, la validez de constructo y la sensibilidad al cambio.ResultadosTodos los pacientes encontraron comprensible el instrumento. El tiempo requerido para completar el CSOC pre y postsialoendoscopia fue de 5,7 y 4,5min, respectivamente. El coeficiente α de Cronbach fue muy alto para el CSOC pre y postsialoendoscópico (0,90 y 0,94, respectivamente). La correlación con las dimensiones del SF-36 fue negativa y positiva con la EVA. La puntuación media del CSOC en el grupo con sialoadenitis fue de 28,63 (antes de la sialoendoscopia) y de 8,33 (después de la sialoendoscopia). En el grupo control la puntuación media del CSOC fue de 1,31.ConclusionesEl CSOC es comprensible, factible, fiable y representativo de la calidad de vida en pacientes con sialoadenitis obstructiva crónica.

Background and objectives: Interest in chronic obstructive sialadenitis is increasing with the introduction of sialendoscopy. A self-administered instrument to assess quality of life in patients with chronic obstructive sialadenitis is needed to improve clinical management and support research. The objectives of this study are to design a Spanish questionnaire to assess quality of life in chronic obstructive sialadenitis, named CSOC and assess its reliability, validity and feasibility.Material and methodsA prospective, multicentre, observational study was conducted. Patients with diagnosis of chronic obstructive sialadenitis were included in the study. The item generation process included a review of published data as well as interviews with patients. An expert panel then tested the content validity of the instrument, and the construct validity was tested in 120 patients and 100 controls. Patients completed a self-administered CSOC questionnaire, a Short Form-36 and a Visual Analogue Scale. Feasibility, reliability, internal consistency, construct validity and responsiveness were assessed.ResultsAll the patients found the instrument understandable. Cronbach α coefficient was high (0.85). The time required to fill out was 5.7 and 4.5min for pre and postsialendoscopy CSOC respectively. Cronbach α coefficient was very high for both pre and postsialendoscopy CSOC (0.90 and 0.94, respectively). The correlation with the SF-36 dimensions was negative and positive with the VAS. The mean score of CSOC was 28.63 and 8.33 for pre and postsialendoscopy. In the control group the mean score of CSOC was 1.31.ConclusionsThe CSOC questionnaire is understandable, feasible, reliable and representative of quality of life in chronic obstructive sialadenitis. (AU)

Valoración de la salud mental en profesionales médicos que ejercieron su actividad durante la crisis sanitaria de Covid-19 / Assessment of mental health in medical professionals who exercised their activity during the COVID-19 health crisis

Objetivos: Estudiar el impacto de la crisis sanitaria sobre el estado de salud mental de los profesionales médicos que han trabajado durante la pandemia de COVID-19. Material y Métodos: Encuesta online anónima con variables ocupacionales y no ocupacionales, cuestionario de ansiedad y depresión de Goldberg y el SF-12 de calidad de vida percibida, realizada en septiembre de 2022, evaluando situación actual y un año atrás en profesionales médicos. Resultados: En 2021, un 58,1% presentaban ansiedad y en 2022 un 46,5%. Respecto a la depresión, en 2021 fue del 39,5% y en 2022 del 37,2%. La disminución de la puntuación de ansiedad fue significativa (p <0,001). Y la calidad de vida percibida (SF-12) en su escala mental en 2021 fue de 42,4 ± 13,0 vs 47,1 ± 11,8 en 2022, mejorando de forma significativa (p <0,033). Conclusiones: Encontramos una alta prevalencia de ansiedad y depresión que se mantiene actualmente, por lo que es de interés implantar programas de intervención sobre salud mental en los trabajadores sanitarios. (AU)

Objectives: To study the impact of the health crisis on the mental health status of medical professionals who worked during the COVID-19 pandemic. Material and Methods: Anonymous online survey with occupational and non-occupational variables, Goldberg anxiety and depression questionnaire and the SF-12 perceived quality of life, conducted in September 2022, assessing current situation and one year ago in medical professionals. Results: In 2021, 58.1% had anxiety and in 2022, 46.5%. Regarding depression, in 2021 it was 39.5% and in 2022 it was 37.2%. The decrease in the anxiety score was significant (p <0.001). And the perceived quality of life (SF-12) on its mental scale in 2021 was 42.4 ± 13.0 vs 47.1 ± 11.8 in 2022, improving significantly (p <0.033). Conclusions: We found a high prevalence of anxiety and depression that is currently maintained, so it is of interest to implement mental health intervention programs for healthcare workers. (AU)

Risk of Intraocular Lens Opacification After Endothelial Keratoplasty for Different Intraocular Lens Models: A Retrospective Single-Center Cohort Study.

PURPOSE: The aims of this study were to calculate the specific risk of opacification for different intraocular lens (IOL) models and to determine whether differences exist, even between lenses made of similar acrylic materials. METHODS: This is a retrospective cohort study of all patients who underwent endothelial keratoplasty (EK), either after or in conjunction with cataract surgery, from June 2009 to October 2020 at Fundación Jiménez Díaz Hospital. RESULTS: Three hundred seventy-two eyes of 308 patients with a median follow-up of 856 days [interquartile range (IQR): 384-1570] were included, of which 128 IOLs were hydrophobic, 120 hydrophilic, and 124 unknown. 12.9% of IOLs opacified after a median of 466 days (IQR: 255-743). Visual acuity (VA) was significantly lower in the opacified IOL group [0.51 (IQR: 0.36-1.13)] compared with the nonopacified group [0.22 (IQR: 0.11-0.65)] ( P < 0.001). IOL explantation and exchange was performed in 10 eyes, in which VA improved markedly, from 1.75 (IQR: 0.99-3.00) to 0.60 (IQR: 0.36-0.86) ( P = 0.004). IOL material and opacification events were not independent ( P < 0.001). Significant differences were found between the Akreos ADAPT AO and MI60P models and the Asphina 409M model ( P = 0.022). No significant differences were found in the opacification ratio for hydrophilic IOLs in the clinical diagnosis ( P = 0.11), the type of EK ( P = 0.25), the rebubbling rate ( P = 0.44), or the tamponade used ( P = 0.36). CONCLUSIONS: Hydrophilic lenses should be avoided in patients at risk of requiring EK. It is important to know the probability of opacification of each IOL model to balance risk and benefits when planning an EK procedure because not all lenses opacify equally. Opacification is an unwanted event with a negative impact on VA, making IOL explantation and exchange the only viable treatment, although one that is not without risks.

Enhanced thrombin generation detected with ST-Genesia analyzer in patients with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma.

The issue of how to identify newly diagnosed multiple myeloma (NDMM) patients requiring thromboprophylaxis remains unsolved. Several changes in thrombin generation (TG)-derived parameters have been described in multiple myeloma (MM) patients recently. Assessment of prothrombotic risk with a fully automated TG analyzer could reduce interlaboratory variability. Our objective was to determine whether ST-Genesia® could reveal a hypercoagulable state in NDMM compared to healthy controls. We conducted a multicenter observational study of NDMM requiring initial treatment to compare TG parameters obtained with ST-Genesia® analyzer and ST-ThromboScreen® reagent with a control group. Clinical data were obtained from medical records and blood samples were collected before initial anti-myeloma therapy. A thrombophilia panel was performed in all patients. Compared to age- and sex-matched controls (n = 83), NDMM patients (n = 83) had significantly higher peak height, higher velocity index, shorter time-to-peak and lower percentage of endogenous thrombin potential (ETP) inhibition after adding thrombomodulin (TM) (ETP%inh). NDMM on prophylactic low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) showed reduced both peak height and velocity index compared to NDMM who had not yet started VTE prophylaxis, similar to that of controls. Moreover, partial correction of ETP%inh was observed in MM patients on LMWH. The presence of a thrombophilia did not modify the TG phenotype. Untreated NDMM patients showed an enhanced TG, regardless of their thrombophilia status. They generate a higher peak of thrombin, take less time to produce it, and exhibit resistance to TM inhibition. Our findings suggest that standard prophylactic dose of LMWH may reduce TG at levels of healthy controls.

Analysis of Differentially Expressed MicroRNAs in Serum and Lung Tissues from Individuals with Severe Asthma Treated with Oral Glucocorticoids.

Nowadays, microRNAs (miRNAs) are increasingly used as biomarkers due to their potential contribution to the diagnosis and targeted treatment of a range of diseases. The aim of the study was to analyze the miRNA expression profiles in serum and lung tissue from patients with severe asthma treated with oral corticosteroids (OCS) and those without OCS treatment. For this purpose, serum and lung tissue miRNAs of OCS and non-OCS asthmatic individuals were evaluated by miRNAs-Seq, and subsequently miRNA validation was performed using RT-qPCR. Additionally, pathway enrichment analysis of deregulated miRNAs was conducted. We observed altered expression by the next-generation sequencing (NGS) of 11 miRNAs in serum, of which five (hsa-miR-148b-3p, hsa-miR-221-5p, hsa-miR-618, hsa-miR-941, and hsa-miR-769-5p) were validated by RT-qPCR, and three miRNAs in lung tissue (hsa-miR-144-3p, hsa-miR-144-5p, and hsa-miR-451a). The best multivariate logistic regression model to differentiate individuals with severe asthma, treated and untreated with OCS, was to combine the serum miRNAs hsa-miR-221-5p and hsa-miR-769-5p. Expression of hsa-miR-148b-3p and hsa-miR-221-5p correlated with FEV1/FVC (%) and these altered miRNAs act in key signaling pathways for asthma disease and the regulated expression of some genes (FOXO3, PTEN, and MAPK3) involved in these pathways. In conclusion, there are miRNA profiles differentially expressed in OCS-treated individuals with asthma and could be used as biomarkers of OCS treatment.